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Old 04-20-2010, 03:36 PM
samyjw samyjw is offline
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Default Ortho, pin/wire removal

Post op period, dr is removing pin (20670), can this be coded under post op time and he has put a mod. 25 w/99204. Shouldn't it be a mod. 58? Can the splint be coded.

Can you tell i am new at coding orthopedics.

Thanks for anyones help.
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Old 04-21-2010, 08:49 AM
Frosty Frosty is offline
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If he is removing the pin IN THE OFFICE during the global period, the pin removal is not billable. Also, he shouldn't be billing 99204 - that's a new pt code. If he's done sx, the pt can't be new. If the pin removal is being done in a facillity & not the office then it is billable, and the modifier depends. If there's a complication that necessitates the removal, then mod 78. But if a planned pin removal, then mod 58. I'm pretty sure you can bill for the splint.
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Old 04-21-2010, 10:29 AM
samyjw samyjw is offline
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Default Pin removal

Thank you so much, i apologize for the transposition of 99204, it should have been 99024. But the question still stands on the mod. 58 for that code (99024). Thanks.
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Old 04-21-2010, 10:44 AM
Frosty Frosty is offline
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You don't need a modifier for 99024, that's the post-op f/u visit & should be a $0.00 charge anyway. You first mentioned that your doc used mod 25 on 99024, but it's not needed in this case. Modifier 58 goes on surgeries, not on evaluation & management codes. And again, whether you use mod 58 or 78 on 20670 depends on the reason for the pin removal - see my previous note. But again, if he did the pin removal (20670) in the office he can't bill it anyway.
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Old 04-21-2010, 11:04 AM
samyjw samyjw is offline
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Default Pin removal

Thank you!!!
samyjw
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