One of my docs is questioning me about closed treatment. He says it doesn't make sense to him that we can bill this and it makes even less sense that there are 90 days global for this code (22310). The way I was taught and have always understood it was if the doctor sees a patient and prescribes a collar or TLSO you can charge the closed treatment with the office visit. However, I understand where he is coming from that this codes seems to be a lot of reimbursement for very little service rendered. I can not find any more detailed information on this code. There are no vignettes in the CPT Assistant, etc. Any advice on where I can find a clearer interpretation of this code?