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Old 10-07-2008, 09:53 AM
fisherdawnmarie fisherdawnmarie is offline
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Default correct icd-9 code?

Patient has shoulder pain and limted range of motion for 6 months.

The impression reads high-grade rim-rent partial tear of the insertion of the supraspinatus tendon.

Would it be correct to code 840.6?

The icd-9 book directs you to 840.6 based on tear, ligament. I have posted similar questions like this before. Wouldn't you only use this code if the patient had an injury?

Because I am not provided with this information and you are not supposed to assume, wouldn't it be correct to only code the shoulder pain?

Thank you.
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Old 10-07-2008, 03:46 PM
FTessaBartels FTessaBartels is offline
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Default Code the tear

If the doctor states the patient has a tear, code the tear, even if he doesn't tell you the method of injury.

F Tessa Bartels, CPC, CPC-E/M
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Disclaimer: Although AAPC staff members will monitor these forums periodically, we cannot be responsible for the information posted herein, nor guarantee its accuracy. Our members may discuss various subjects related to medical coding, but none of the information should replace the independent judgment of a physician for any given health issue. Please note that the opinions expressed here do not necessarily reflect those of AAPC.

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