36200, 75625, 75716

amym

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Should this be coded as 36200, 75625, 75716? Also, where can I read up on how to code interventions correctly?

PROTOCOL: After written informed consent was obtained, the patient was
brought to the peripheral vascular lab and both groins are prepped and
draped in a usual fashion. Xylocaine was infiltrated in the left groin
and access achieved with a 5 French sheath and subsequently a 5 French
OmniFlush catheter was advanced to the position of the L1 level.
Abdominal aortogram was performed. Subsequently catheter was pulled
back above the level of the bifurcation and 80 mL of contrast bolus
chase method was used for imaging. No complications occurred. After
completion of the procedure, StarClose method was used for hemostasis.

FINDINGS:
1. The abdominal aorta and the renal arteries are normal.
2. Common iliac, external iliac, femoral, common femoral arteries,
superficial femoral artery, and popliteal arteries show only mild
atherosclerosis and luminal irregularities.
3. Inferior popliteal disease is present bilaterally. Right inferior
popliteal disease demonstrates 70% ostial posterior tibial artery
stenosis, which is followed by 50% disease of the peroneal artery in
the
mid segment and the anterior tibial artery is patent with good flow and
there is presence of three vessel runoff to the foot.
4. The left circulation reveals the left posterior tibial artery is
patent with good flow. The left peroneal artery is totally occluded in
the mid segment and reconstitutes in the distal segment, and anterior
tibial artery is showing mild to moderate disease with three vessel
runoff to the foot.

IMPRESSION:
High grade stenosis of the ostium of the right posterior tibial artery,
however three vessel runoff is present and moderate disease is noted in
the peroneal artery.
 
I was just reviewing these codes on pages 373 & 480 in the CPT book. You may have to read it several times to fully comprehend. But it should be helpful.
 
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