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Coding Closed Treatment Of A Fracture

chrislyn1977

Networker
Messages
39
Location
Knoxville, TN
Best answers
0
Hi all,
Well I thought I had my stuff together on coding closed tx of fractures, but you know how it goes..one question asked and then you're questioning yourself. Here goes...

I have a physician who consulted with a patient in the hospital. He determined that the patient had a distal supracondylar fracture. He treated this non-operatively with a padded knee immobilizer. Can he bill the 27501 (closed treatment without manipulation)? The reason I question myself is because all he did was order a knee orthosis that will be fit and supplied for by the hospital.

If this same situation happended in our office where we do supply the DME could I bill the 27501?

I guess to sum it up can we bill for a closed TX of a fracture code when the doctor only ordered DME?

As always thanks for your help?
 

Treetoad

Expert
Messages
398
Best answers
0
Unless the provider intended to see the patient in follow-up, I would be hard pressed to charge fracture care. I would charge the consultation only--provided the documentation supported it.
 
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