I've been in a discussion with my boss about the coding of cyroablation of common warts. Now the patient has two warts to be treated on the shoulder area. When i read code 17000 the part that sticks out the most is the statement that it is the destruction of "premalignant" lesions. Am I incorrect in my understanding that a wart is not a premalignant lesion. I personally would code this with 17110. Your thoughts?