Cryoablation of Common Warts

mbdk1977

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I've been in a discussion with my boss about the coding of cyroablation of common warts. Now the patient has two warts to be treated on the shoulder area. When i read code 17000 the part that sticks out the most is the statement that it is the destruction of "premalignant" lesions. Am I incorrect in my understanding that a wart is not a premalignant lesion. I personally would code this with 17110. Your thoughts?
 

dmaec

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I would code the 17110 (benign) as well. I only use the 17000 for pre-maglignant. I believe it was in 2008 that the code was revised (17110). I use 17000 for actinic keratoses/pre-malignant.

if you read under the 17003 code - it says, "for destruction of common warts, see 17110 / 17111"
 

mbdk1977

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Hi Donna! Thank you for pointing out that note, I must have read over it.

I would code the 17110 (benign) as well. I only use the 17000 for pre-maglignant. I believe it was in 2008 that the code was revised (17110). I use 17000 for actinic keratoses/pre-malignant.

if you read under the 17003 code - it says, "for destruction of common warts, see 17110 / 17111"
 
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