Modifier -62 Question

ckkohler

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Hi Everyone! I'm getting ready to sit for the CPC Exam on Saturday 11/15/08 (first time); purchased a practice test and did pretty well the first time through. Ones I missed I figured out what I did wrong. There is one that I have a question about however ... question says "The ENT surgeon performs an anterior skull base LeFort I osteotomy approach for the intradural removal of a meningioma by a neurosurgeon. What should the ENT surgeon bill?"

Choices are:

a) 61580-62
b) 61586-62
c) 61586
d) 61584

I answered 61586-62 (because of two surgeons) ... but, the correct answer is 61586. My questions is WHY? Am I reading too much into the question and assuming the ENT opened and the neurosurgeon did his bit at the same time?

Thanks for any help you can provide.:confused: :rolleyes: :p
 
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For codes dealing with surgery to the base of the skull - when one surgeon performs the apporach procedure and the other performs the definitive procedure - each surgeon would report only the code for the specific procedures performed. The ENT performs the approach and should code 61586 without the modifier 62
Good luck on your exam
 

ckkohler

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Thanks! I guess I thought -62 would be appropriate because it states "two surgeons". When I trained claims auditors at BCBS, we used -62 to indicate that two surgeons of different specialties were involved in the same surgical suite. Modifier -62 really was for CO-surgeons ... meaning that they were of different specialties BUT one needed the other to do their job ... isn't that the case here? Didn't the neurosurgeon NEED the ENT to create the opening? Hmmm ... still wondering.
 

coding303

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I haven't taken the CPC yet, but I'm looking at the phrase "What should the ENT surgeon bill?"

I may be very wrong, but most tests I have taken involve dissecting the question.
 
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I answered on the other thread

CK ...
your question was also posted on another thread, and I answered you there.

F Tessa Bartels, CPC, CPC-E/M
 
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