OBGYN 5th digit question


Best answers
I'm having one of those random side trained logic days and I need help getting back on course.

Mom presents to L&D for IOL.

Antepartum she has a dx of severe pre-e treated with IOL and mag.

Mom delivers and there are a slew of postpartum complications due to postpartum hemorrhage.

Couple days go by and mom has renal insufficiency again due to the severe pre-e which didn't clear up after delivery and instead, continued to progress.

Is it double dipping do use a 642.51 AND a 642.52?

On the one hand, I know I need to code it to the highest level which would be the 2. But, I started off looking at is as two separate situations. An antepartum condition that impacted both the mother and the fetus in so far as how the pregnancy and delivery were managed. And then a second, postpartum period in which the mother alone was managed as delivery itself did not stop the severe pre-e from progressing as expected.