deyoung
Guru
Dr sees patient on the day of discharge at the hospital. Patient presents to the outpatient clinic for follow-up on the same day as discharge. Dr is asking if he can bill a 90862 (med mgmt) for the clinic visit in addition to the 99238 (discharge) since they are 2 different places of service.
My thinking - med mgmt is included in the discharge, why would it need to be done again on the same day at the clinic. Maybe an est. patient E/M for follow-up visit if he is seeing patient to discuss outpatient careplan?
Patient will most likely continued to be seen at the clinic for med mgmt. If the patient had come in and was seen by a different Dr a 90801 would have been billed but the question comes in because it's the same Dr that also saw patient for discharge.
Please share with me your thoughts. Thanks!
My thinking - med mgmt is included in the discharge, why would it need to be done again on the same day at the clinic. Maybe an est. patient E/M for follow-up visit if he is seeing patient to discuss outpatient careplan?
Patient will most likely continued to be seen at the clinic for med mgmt. If the patient had come in and was seen by a different Dr a 90801 would have been billed but the question comes in because it's the same Dr that also saw patient for discharge.
Please share with me your thoughts. Thanks!