Would SLE (710.0) or DVT (453.42) be the prinicapl dx in the following scenario:
A patient with known lupus anticoagulant (289.81) due to SLE and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower leg (being treated with Coumadin) presented to the Emergency Department with acute onset left calf pain. It was found that the pt's Coumadin/INR was subtherapeutic but the known DVT had not progressed. The pt was admitted for more aggressive treatment of the DVT (with IV Heparin).
I'm thinking the DVT would be coded first. However, I'm not sure if the underlying SLE (etiology) should be coded first followed by the manifestion (i.e., DVT)????
A patient with known lupus anticoagulant (289.81) due to SLE and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) of the left lower leg (being treated with Coumadin) presented to the Emergency Department with acute onset left calf pain. It was found that the pt's Coumadin/INR was subtherapeutic but the known DVT had not progressed. The pt was admitted for more aggressive treatment of the DVT (with IV Heparin).
I'm thinking the DVT would be coded first. However, I'm not sure if the underlying SLE (etiology) should be coded first followed by the manifestion (i.e., DVT)????