betsycpcp
Networker
I've seen similar questions to this one on here but no consistent answers. The op report lists the procedure as "closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of left small finger middle phalanx intra-articular fracture." The hospital billed 26727 (percutaneous pinning of unstable phalangeal *shaft* fracture) and the surgeon is billing 26742 (*closed* treatment of articular fracture, MCP or IP joint, with manipulation). So one code is percutaneous but not for an intra-articular fracture, and the other is for an articular fracture but closed instead of percutaneous. Then there's 26776 (percutaneous fixation of IP joint dislocation) but this is a fracture, not a dislocation.
Has anyone come across any official guidance on this? I can't figure out why there isn't a code that includes 1) percutaneous, 2) intraarticular (or articular) and 3) fracture-- for the middle phalanx.
Has anyone come across any official guidance on this? I can't figure out why there isn't a code that includes 1) percutaneous, 2) intraarticular (or articular) and 3) fracture-- for the middle phalanx.