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Thread: Coding Closed Treatment Of A Fracture

  1. #1

    Default Coding Closed Treatment Of A Fracture

    AAPC: Back to School
    Hi all,
    Well I thought I had my stuff together on coding closed tx of fractures, but you know how it goes..one question asked and then you're questioning yourself. Here goes...

    I have a physician who consulted with a patient in the hospital. He determined that the patient had a distal supracondylar fracture. He treated this non-operatively with a padded knee immobilizer. Can he bill the 27501 (closed treatment without manipulation)? The reason I question myself is because all he did was order a knee orthosis that will be fit and supplied for by the hospital.

    If this same situation happended in our office where we do supply the DME could I bill the 27501?

    I guess to sum it up can we bill for a closed TX of a fracture code when the doctor only ordered DME?

    As always thanks for your help?
    Christy Brown, CPC
    Appalachian Orthopedic Associates P.C
    Johnson City, TN

  2. #2


    Unless the provider intended to see the patient in follow-up, I would be hard pressed to charge fracture care. I would charge the consultation only--provided the documentation supported it.


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