Does anyone have any input on this one?
My train of thought on being able to bill out 38100-59 rather than using the 38102 is because they performed the splenectomy as the primary procedure and then ran the bowel and discovered a mass (post op dx: adinocarcinoma) that explained his history of pain and then they did the small bowel resection.
Am I off in my understanding of these codes?
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