Patient comes in today for a preventative visit with her pcp. She does not want said provider to do her pap. She gets an appointment next day and has the female ARNP do her pap. I know that if it was the provider and the patient was mentstrating they would wait and do the pap after she was finished. Then come in and we would not bill for the pap alone.
Question is if it is a different provider how do they get the revenue for performing the pap the next day?