I've seen similar questions that were never answered so I'm hoping there's somebody out there now who may know how to handle this scenario. A doc sees a patient and decides that a splint is required but has the MA apply the splint. It is not a pre-made splint. Since the physician is not the one who did it, does that mean we can't bill for the splinting? The descriptors of the splinting codes (29125 for example) states "The physician applies..." so it's been interpreted to mean that the physician has to get their hands dirty. Has anyone heard differently? Thanks for any insights you can provide on this. I can't imagine that we're the only office whose providers decide to let the MAs do the dirty work