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Thread: 29806 & 29807-59??

  1. #1

    Default 29806 & 29807-59??

    AAPC: Back to School
    okay would the following justify billing for both 29806 & 29807-59? thanks!

    DX: SLAP lesion on left shoulder plus Bankart lesion

    Anteriorly down to the 9'o'clock position, a bankart lesion was identified with a tear of the labrum.. First an anterior cannula was inserted and dilated to an 8mm and the torn labrum was debrided. A bleeding bony bed was used with a shaver. placing a pushlock drill at the 10'o'clock position and placing a 45 degree suture passer at the 9 o'clock position the fiberwire was pulled out through the anterior cannula once the fibewire was passed. This was then transferred through the anterosuperior cannula, which was #6 to allow for again for the drilling. It was replaced anteriorly and placed through the pushlock. The pushlock was inserted and excellent fixation was achieved, where a second anchor that was previously thought to be necessary was now required. The posterior detachment of the SLAP was still present with abduction and therefore an anchor was placed through the port of Wilmington, first identifying an 18 gauge spinal needle and for shaving the anterior glenoid down to bleeding bone. Once this was accomplished a drill guide for the suturetak was drilled and then inserted. One limb was placed posteriorly using a right 25 degree angled suture passer pulling it through the anterior cannula. Once this was accomplished, the suture was then placed in the anterosuperior cannula and the second limb was pulled through the anterosuperior cannula placing the knot posteriorly. A duncan loop was tied with two half hitches, reverse half hitch, and a reverse post. This was then cut.

  2. #2


    anyone out there who can help?

  3. #3
    Join Date
    Apr 2007


    I personally would only code the 29807-LT. If ASC you can code for the anchor with L8699.

  4. #4
    Join Date
    Apr 2007

    Default Aaos

    April 2006 AAOS bulletin states you can charge both codes together-IF- there is a capsular defect in an area different from the SLAP

    If it's Medicare forget it.

  5. #5


    So then what you're saying is in this scenario, I really can't bill both? because it's not a capsular defect, it's just a labral tear

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