This is really a general question pertaining to billing screening papsmears G0123 and 88142.
Years ago either the lab would only bill for one, or the doctor’s office would say bill the pap to their account when the first specimen was unsatisfactory.
Now that they came up with the dx 795.08, this has been an issue.
Medicare sees it as frequency issue, and we don’t really know what insurances do with them, since there are deductibles and so forth.
I have literature that indicates how the physician’s office is to bill and code, but we are still searching for clear info on how to code both samples, so hopefully they will be paid by the carrier.