Description of procedure: The patient was taken to operating room and placed in the prone position. His low back was prepped with betadine and xylocaine 1% was infiltrated lateral to the midline at the l3-4 level, first on the right side. Under c-arm guidance, a 2-inch 25-gauge spinal needle was passed to the l3-4 facet joint with no difficulty. No blood, csf or paresthesias was appreciated. I then injected 20 mg of depo-medrol and 0.5 ml of 0.5% mepivacaine. The needle was then redirected to the area of the medial branch nerve and the same injectant was injected. I then turned my attention to the left side where the procedure was repeated in an identical fashion. My question is: The dr has indicated this procedure to be 64483, 64484 bilaterally. Is this correct?
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