So in the past the office that I work in was billing medicare with lesion codes for vertebral subluxations such as the following:
739.3 lumbar lesion
724.4 lumbar radiculitis
722.52 lumbar IVD degeneration.

Im not sure if this would be the correct coding. My thought if the notes say that its
"vertebral subluxation of l5 with associated leg pain, showing arthritic changes of degenerative joint disorder"

shouldn't it be coded as :
839.20 L5 subluxation
724.4 Lumbar radiculitis
72.52 Lumbar IVD Degeneration

Or does it have to be a lesion to be billed to Medicare?

Any help is appreciated. Thanks for your help in adavance