ok I just need to verify whether I should have used both of these codes for this or not
I have read the previous posts on this debate but still am not sure. if someone could please review and let me know what you think.
PROCEDURE: The patient was taken to the operating room, placed under general anesthesia.He had a previous interscalene block. Turned to the right lateral decubitus position. Downside was well padded with an axillary roll and perineal pad. The limb was prepared and draped. Posterior viewing portal was established. He had a tear of the anterior labrum from the 6 to the 12 o'clock position. He had fraying of the posterior labrum from the 12 to 6 o'clock position on the posterior side. A freshened up the labrum with the rasp on the glenoid at the 5:30, 4:30, 2:30, 1:30 and 12 o'clock positions. I placed anchors in an interrupted fashion. I repaired his SLAP and his
anterior Bankart lesion. I removed the bony deficits. The resulting glenoid was right at 20 mm.I placed a suture through the subscapularis and through the rotator interval and the anterior aspect of the supraspinatus and did an interval closure. I thoroughly evaluated the posterior superior and the posterior inferior labrum that was frayed but the bulk was intact. The joint volume was closed down. The position was good. No instability was encountered with rotation.