wynonna
True Blue
If an illness has a low risk of morbidity without treatment, does it qualify as low in any way? How about low risk for the provider's thought process? In the following example:
A provider does an ear wax removal, (cpt-69210), looks at that day's audiograms and prior audiograms from a year ago. Provider then orders 2 sets of audiogram for the future. Audiologist will bill audio/tympanograms.
So, comorbidities are abnormal auditory perception (blocked ears) and sensorineural hearing loss which is permanent. (cerumen impaction goes under ear wax removal)
Would cerumen impaction removal be considered minor surgery without risk factors?
Would this be coded as a level 2 or level 3 with 69210?
A provider does an ear wax removal, (cpt-69210), looks at that day's audiograms and prior audiograms from a year ago. Provider then orders 2 sets of audiogram for the future. Audiologist will bill audio/tympanograms.
So, comorbidities are abnormal auditory perception (blocked ears) and sensorineural hearing loss which is permanent. (cerumen impaction goes under ear wax removal)
Would cerumen impaction removal be considered minor surgery without risk factors?
Would this be coded as a level 2 or level 3 with 69210?