jtrong
New
Hello -
I am having a hard time determining an appropriate primary diagnosis for a new admission for short term rehab to a SNF.
Patient presented to ER after being found down after an indeterminant amount of time. She was found to have had a small, suspected cardioembolic, stroke with encephalopathy. During her stay at the hospital, her encephalopathy was constantly noted as "improving", "self-resolving", and "stably resolved". She had continuous EEG monitoring which ruled out seizure activity. She was being worked up for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and discharged with a halter monitor.
In her discharge summary from the hospital, there is no mention of the a-fib but they do note the 30 day halter monitor. The discharge summary also states "discharge diagnosis: encephalopathy in the setting of stroke" but goes on to note that "mental status improved; self-resolving encephalopathy".
Once she arrived at the nursing home, the NP's admitting note states "s/p idiopathic encephalopathy; generalized weakness; felt multi-factorial, probably metabolic in nature".
Of note, her other dxs included: CAD; Weakness; trouble ambulating; previous CVA with right upper extremity weakness; HLD; depression; anxiety. None of these other issues were addressed during her inpatient admission, except for maintenance meds.
Based on the fact that the encephalopathy was indicated to be resolved, self-resolving, etc., I selected the paroxysmal a-fib as primary (because of the halter monitor and the thought that it could have contributed to the stroke) and the guidelines stating a suspected dx can be primary if it's being worked up; however, the MDS coordinator disagrees and feels the encephalopathy should be primary. I'm hesitant to do so because of all the documentation that makes it sound like it is no longer present. I have requested that if the medical team feels the encephalopathy is a more appropriate primary, then a clear concise note needs to be added to the chart documenting the encephalopathy as current and being treated. (MDS coordinator feels there's enough documentation supporting it, however). To date, a note has not been added.
I just want to be sure that I am on the right track with this, and not overlooking something (or causing a headache unnecessarily).
Any input and advice is immensely appreciated. Please let me know if additional information may be needed.
Thank you,
Jessica
I am having a hard time determining an appropriate primary diagnosis for a new admission for short term rehab to a SNF.
Patient presented to ER after being found down after an indeterminant amount of time. She was found to have had a small, suspected cardioembolic, stroke with encephalopathy. During her stay at the hospital, her encephalopathy was constantly noted as "improving", "self-resolving", and "stably resolved". She had continuous EEG monitoring which ruled out seizure activity. She was being worked up for paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and discharged with a halter monitor.
In her discharge summary from the hospital, there is no mention of the a-fib but they do note the 30 day halter monitor. The discharge summary also states "discharge diagnosis: encephalopathy in the setting of stroke" but goes on to note that "mental status improved; self-resolving encephalopathy".
Once she arrived at the nursing home, the NP's admitting note states "s/p idiopathic encephalopathy; generalized weakness; felt multi-factorial, probably metabolic in nature".
Of note, her other dxs included: CAD; Weakness; trouble ambulating; previous CVA with right upper extremity weakness; HLD; depression; anxiety. None of these other issues were addressed during her inpatient admission, except for maintenance meds.
Based on the fact that the encephalopathy was indicated to be resolved, self-resolving, etc., I selected the paroxysmal a-fib as primary (because of the halter monitor and the thought that it could have contributed to the stroke) and the guidelines stating a suspected dx can be primary if it's being worked up; however, the MDS coordinator disagrees and feels the encephalopathy should be primary. I'm hesitant to do so because of all the documentation that makes it sound like it is no longer present. I have requested that if the medical team feels the encephalopathy is a more appropriate primary, then a clear concise note needs to be added to the chart documenting the encephalopathy as current and being treated. (MDS coordinator feels there's enough documentation supporting it, however). To date, a note has not been added.
I just want to be sure that I am on the right track with this, and not overlooking something (or causing a headache unnecessarily).
Any input and advice is immensely appreciated. Please let me know if additional information may be needed.
Thank you,
Jessica