mlburnett
New
I need some clarification on something. Say an ortho is consulted on call for a pt in the ER for a fracture of the distal radius and performs closed tx with manipulation. In the dictation he states that the pt will need open tx of that fracture. So the pt is told to follow-up in the office two days later to schedule the open procedure. The open tx is scheduled four days after the initial visit in ER. Can he charge for both the closed tx w/ manp. and the open tx? Please help me clarify my confusion. 