chrislyn1977
Networker
Hi all,
Well I thought I had my stuff together on coding closed tx of fractures, but you know how it goes..one question asked and then you're questioning yourself. Here goes...
I have a physician who consulted with a patient in the hospital. He determined that the patient had a distal supracondylar fracture. He treated this non-operatively with a padded knee immobilizer. Can he bill the 27501 (closed treatment without manipulation)? The reason I question myself is because all he did was order a knee orthosis that will be fit and supplied for by the hospital.
If this same situation happended in our office where we do supply the DME could I bill the 27501?
I guess to sum it up can we bill for a closed TX of a fracture code when the doctor only ordered DME?
As always thanks for your help?
Well I thought I had my stuff together on coding closed tx of fractures, but you know how it goes..one question asked and then you're questioning yourself. Here goes...
I have a physician who consulted with a patient in the hospital. He determined that the patient had a distal supracondylar fracture. He treated this non-operatively with a padded knee immobilizer. Can he bill the 27501 (closed treatment without manipulation)? The reason I question myself is because all he did was order a knee orthosis that will be fit and supplied for by the hospital.
If this same situation happended in our office where we do supply the DME could I bill the 27501?
I guess to sum it up can we bill for a closed TX of a fracture code when the doctor only ordered DME?
As always thanks for your help?