The tip of the distal phalanx bone was involved. I believe the partial codes refer to partial amputation where a tendon or skin is still attached. In this case, the amputation went completely through the fingertip, including bone. Maybe I'm reading into it too much?Was there bone (distal phalanx) involved or was it soft tissue/nail nailbed?
Did you look at S68.625_? There are partial codes.
I agree with your code choice. I think that Codify is incorrect here - a transphalangeal amputation of the distal phalanx would obviously not include a loss of any joint. There is nothing in the ICD-10 guidelines that supports what Codify is telling you here.The patient is being treated for traumatic fingertip amputation of the left ring finger. I was considering using S68.615A as the primary Dx code. However, according to Codify, "Complete traumatic transphalangeal amputation of an unspecified finger refers to a complete loss of the joint between any two phalanges or bones of the finger". So, if the traumatic amputation does not involve the joint, what would be the proper Dx code?