bmcbillers
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I need to understand how to code the following, I have two different coders that are indicating different CPT codes and I need to understand which is correct. The OP report indicates: Through the rigth groin the common femoral vessel was entered without difficulty. I was able to pass a 0.035 inch guidewire up into the abdominal aorta followed by a 5-French sheath followed by a 5-inch pigtail catheter and angiography was performed. The pt was noted to have single renal arteries bilaterally. There was significant stenosis in both renal arteries. We did selective angiography of both the right and left renal arteries; the right renal artery was approximately 90% at its origin; the left was greater than 90% at its origin. Both of these vessels were very densely calcified at the aorta; just below this point there was abdominal aortic aneurysm. The common iliac vessels had stenosis at their origin in the range of approximately 40% to 50%. The external iliac vessels appeared to be normal. The common femoral, profunda femoris artery, SFA, and popliteal arteries were normal bilaterally. Mynx device was successfully deployed.