We are a small community health center with a high population of people engaging in high risk sexual behavior. It is common for patients to come in for STD/HIV testing within a day or two of this behavior, with no other complaints, just wanting to be tested.
The providers take a brief history, may do a very brief exam (vitals, general appearance, genitourinary), and order the labs.
These visits usually include discussion of safe sex practices and dispensing of condoms.
Is it appropriate to code these visits as a risk factor counseling visit 99401 with diagnosis V69.2? Because the providers usually document a minimal exam, I question if the counseling code is appropriate? If we code with an office visit code, insurance will deny based on the V69.2 diagnosis, but there is no other diagnosis to assign.
Looking for opinions and experiences...
Thanks,
Arrana
The providers take a brief history, may do a very brief exam (vitals, general appearance, genitourinary), and order the labs.
These visits usually include discussion of safe sex practices and dispensing of condoms.
Is it appropriate to code these visits as a risk factor counseling visit 99401 with diagnosis V69.2? Because the providers usually document a minimal exam, I question if the counseling code is appropriate? If we code with an office visit code, insurance will deny based on the V69.2 diagnosis, but there is no other diagnosis to assign.
Looking for opinions and experiences...
Thanks,
Arrana