ahunemuller
Guest
- Messages
- 5
- Best answers
- 0
Have a question for all you hospital billers out there. One of my providers asked a question of me that I cannot help with because I have only done outpatient/office billing. If a hospital uses a diagnosis on a patient of infection of non union of fibula. Does the hospital get reimbursed more for the infection than if it were just a non union and there was no infection? Do you know how much different? What plays a factor in how much they pay?