Hi everyone,
I am studying to take the ICD10 proficiency test. One of the case scenarios in the workbook is: Diagnosis: Posttraumatic subtalar osteoarthritis, right Haglund deformity, right. Indication for surgery states the patient is dealing with posttraumatic arthritis after malunion calcaneal fracture. I coded as M19.71, S92.001S and M92.61. The answers in the back do not include the S92.001S. This is obviously a sequela. I went to an all day orthopedics coding seminar recently and this question was also presented in the Specialty Code Set Training book for orthopedics. The presenter went over this case. She said to include the sequela code. Who is right?
Thank you,
Cindy Chalk
I am studying to take the ICD10 proficiency test. One of the case scenarios in the workbook is: Diagnosis: Posttraumatic subtalar osteoarthritis, right Haglund deformity, right. Indication for surgery states the patient is dealing with posttraumatic arthritis after malunion calcaneal fracture. I coded as M19.71, S92.001S and M92.61. The answers in the back do not include the S92.001S. This is obviously a sequela. I went to an all day orthopedics coding seminar recently and this question was also presented in the Specialty Code Set Training book for orthopedics. The presenter went over this case. She said to include the sequela code. Who is right?
Thank you,
Cindy Chalk