twosmek
Guest
Question. Need for clarification to MD and mangaer.
If a pt is in the ER for Hip pain and the ER MD does an xray and determine that there is a displaced femural fx. ER MD admits the pt and then calls the orthopedic MD in to treat the fx. Orthopedic MD evaluates the pt and determines that surgery is needed and set up a ORIF. The MD is charging and Inpt consult and the surgery code. Is this correct or should it just be the surgery code because the fx dx was already determined by the ER MD.
Same scenario but the pt is an Inpt for failure to thrive, while the attending md is evaluating the pt the pt states that their knee hurts. MD then calls the orthopedic md to evaluate the shoulder pain. Ortho evaluated the pt and determines that pt needs an arthroscopy due to chondromalacia. Is this a inpt consult.
Thoughts
If a pt is in the ER for Hip pain and the ER MD does an xray and determine that there is a displaced femural fx. ER MD admits the pt and then calls the orthopedic MD in to treat the fx. Orthopedic MD evaluates the pt and determines that surgery is needed and set up a ORIF. The MD is charging and Inpt consult and the surgery code. Is this correct or should it just be the surgery code because the fx dx was already determined by the ER MD.
Same scenario but the pt is an Inpt for failure to thrive, while the attending md is evaluating the pt the pt states that their knee hurts. MD then calls the orthopedic md to evaluate the shoulder pain. Ortho evaluated the pt and determines that pt needs an arthroscopy due to chondromalacia. Is this a inpt consult.
Thoughts