I am having back to back patients who my Provider is recommending Mohs for Muir-Torre Syndrome. The patient has never been diagnosed with Muir-Torre Syndrome, but they want to do Mohs as they have a high suspicion of diagnosis. I am not familiar with this diagnosis but after research, I know this is a genetic disorder that relates to internal malignancies in numerous body locations - GI, etc. and Adenomas are a common symptom. The diagnosis is Atypical Sebaceous Adenoma, it is considered benign, not malignant. So how would this qualify for Mohs and not Excision - maybe with deeper margins? I just want to get my facts together before we actually do the surgery, and not deal with it after the fact. Thanks in advance!