Wiki On Call Drs.--Is this possible?

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kibbit99

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One of our Doctors is stating there was no consult done on a patient he seen and billed as subsequent. I thought the first visit we are consulted for would have to be the 9925* code series.

If a resident seen the patient and we did not sign off on the first day, would this mean we can only bill a subq code on the day we signed off or seen the patient?

Thank you in advance.

Kim, CPC
 
The first visit with a patient is not always a consult. It the patient was referred to your doc to assume care for an issue then it is not a consult and subsequent care is the right code.
 
No billable service on first "visit"

Per our Compliance department (teaching hospital) if the original "visit" with the service was only with a resident and is nonbillable. Then the "new patient" office visit applies to the first clinic encounter with the supervising orthopaedic surgeon.

This happens when an injured patient is seen in the ER by a resident, who instructs patient to return to clinic "tomorrow" (or some near-future date). There is no billable service for the resident seeing the patient in the ER without direct Orthopaedic surgeon supervision, so for billing purposes the first visit is the one with the ortho surgeon in clinic a day or so later.

NOTE ... this first visit in clinic is NOT a consult. It is a new patient visit.

F Tessa Bartels, CPC, CEMC
 
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