heatherwinters
Expert
A patient came in with foot pain and was diagnosed with a plantar wart. The assessment has the plantar wart as one of the dx listed and under plan the clinician wrote "pare wart (done)" He stated that he did indeed pare the wart at this visit.
1) Is "pare wart (done)" along with documentation on the exam of the plantar wart location enough to bill for it's removal
2) would you code it as a 17110 or a 11055 with a 078.12
3) Since subjective portion of note documents pain associated with it, would you also use 729.5?
4) Is an ABN needed or would this be considered statutorily excluded as "routine" foot care?
No other examination abnormalities were noted
Other Dx at the time of the visit were: decreased memory, M. avium, pneumonia, crohn's, non hodgkins lymphoma
Here is my Local LCD
http://www.ngsmedicare.com/NGSMedicare/lcd/L26426_active_lcd.htm
1) Is "pare wart (done)" along with documentation on the exam of the plantar wart location enough to bill for it's removal
2) would you code it as a 17110 or a 11055 with a 078.12
3) Since subjective portion of note documents pain associated with it, would you also use 729.5?
4) Is an ABN needed or would this be considered statutorily excluded as "routine" foot care?
No other examination abnormalities were noted
Other Dx at the time of the visit were: decreased memory, M. avium, pneumonia, crohn's, non hodgkins lymphoma
Here is my Local LCD
http://www.ngsmedicare.com/NGSMedicare/lcd/L26426_active_lcd.htm