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Wiki Topical Treatments

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We are having a debate over this question:

When a patient presents to the office as a new patient but has compliants of anal pain, and anal itching, the physician then applies a ANALPRAM (topical ointment) in the rectum to see if this helps with the anal itching. I believe it is included in the office visit but one of the coders here is saying that that normally use CPT code 17000, which to me is clearly incorect. The patient never stated that they had any warts, lesions and as the MD does not state that on the report.

Thanks for any advice given!:)
 
17000 is incorrect for topical ointment application. 17000 is a code for a destruction of a premalignant lesion, hopefully nothing was destroyed at this encounter! you are correct in that it is part of the E&M.
 
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