Hdean
Contributor
If my provider choose to not bill for a service that was provided, is that still considered undercoding and a fraud/abuse situation, or no?
-
If this is your first visit, be sure to check out the FAQ & read the forum rules. To view all forums, post or create a new thread, you must be an AAPC Member. If you are a member and have already registered for member area and forum access, you can log in by clicking here. If you've forgotten the password it can be reset on our sign in section by entering your registered Email Address or Username here. To start viewing messages, select the forum that you want to visit from the selection below..
Wiki Undercoding vs. not billing
- Thread starter Hdean
- Start date
Orthocoderpgu
True Blue
It is because it creates an incentive for patients to see your provider rather than another. Think of it as "Waiving copays". It creates an incentive to go to you rather than another clinic. You need to bill all services.
Lyta2000
Networker
I agree.
thomas7331
Guest
Agreed, offering any free services or items of value to patients can be considered an 'inducement' and if it involves a Medicare or Medicaid patient, it is prohibited by law. Here is a reference document from the OIG that explains this in a little more detail: