I've been seeing this code a lot lately from a new provider. They are adding it to patient's who take anticoagulants, especially if they have a diagnosis of Senile Purpura. I don't feel comfortable with it though, because I think that they believe it just means the patient bleeds easily.
However, Qualitative Platelet Disorders usually present with mucocutaneous bleeding and excessive bruising with an adequate platelet count, PT, and aPTT and normal screening tests for vWD. Hardly any of the patients have any documented PT or aPTT tests results on record and absolutely none of them have had genetic testing for vWD. This disorder usually presents when the patient is younger, often with frequent nose bleeds for example.
Am I reading too much into this? Perhaps I misunderstand the diagnosis?
Has anyone else encountered this?
Can anyone verify where this provider may have gotten this from? Perhaps a new AHA ruling I missed?
Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated! Thanks!
However, Qualitative Platelet Disorders usually present with mucocutaneous bleeding and excessive bruising with an adequate platelet count, PT, and aPTT and normal screening tests for vWD. Hardly any of the patients have any documented PT or aPTT tests results on record and absolutely none of them have had genetic testing for vWD. This disorder usually presents when the patient is younger, often with frequent nose bleeds for example.
Am I reading too much into this? Perhaps I misunderstand the diagnosis?
Has anyone else encountered this?
Can anyone verify where this provider may have gotten this from? Perhaps a new AHA ruling I missed?
Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated! Thanks!