Wiki Adenopathy in Cancer

[LuckyLily]

If a patient has cancer, and provider states the patient also has lymphadenopathy (from reviewing the imaging) would it be appropriate to code the lymphadenopathy as lymph mets?

My thoughts would be no. Lymphadenopathy does not equate to lymph mets. However others are telling me yes.

Any thoughts would be helpful.

 

[csperoni]

I do not code lymph mets unless there is a biopsy proving so or the clinician clearly states so in the notes. I would code the lymphadenopathy as documented - R59.0-R59.9
If the provider did not make the leap to lymph mets, then I certainly won't. It's a possible (or even probable) diagnosis, which is not coded as the disease for outpatient. Similarly, when a patient first presents and you suspect cancer, you code the signs/symptoms until you have a confirmed diagnosis.