Hello- for a small practice of behavioral health providers, we've always had a Consent for Treatment and the clinicians Professional Disclosure Statement signed first thing as a requirement for billing. We have a compliance team for compliance issues but a question has come up recently asking if this is truly the case in order to bill for services. Is a consent for treatment and a disclosure statement that is signed by the clinician and the client on the first day of services a requirement to submit to a payer? Or is it a case of as long as there is one, then it is okay to bill? I cannot find anything that specifically states that we can't bill for the services or that we have to refund if that piece of documentation is missing even though that has been our best practice for a long time. Any help or direction would be appreciated.
We bill only to Medicaid in Washington.
We bill only to Medicaid in Washington.