I've always had difficulties getting this question answered in regard to ICD-10.
In ICD-9 training our book states that hypertension and CKD always have an implied relationship. So it should be coded 403.9x/585.x. But the book did not state that relationship was implied with any other diagnoses.
I want to know if that is the same case with ICD-10. So if a doctor states hypertension and CHF but doesn't state that they have an implied relationship, would those still be coded together to I11.0 or would they be reported separately?
Same think for Diabetes and other diagnoses. Our physicians often state "diabetes, neuropathy, etc etc" but not diabetic neuropathy. We were told during a seminar that if it is not stated as a diabetic neuropathy that they should be coded separately. But with ICD-10 I'm not sure if they should be combined.
For example, the Doctor states Type 2 Diabetes, CKD stg 1, etc etc. Would you use E11.22/N18.1? OR E11.9/N18.1?
I hope my question doesn't seem too confusing.
In ICD-9 training our book states that hypertension and CKD always have an implied relationship. So it should be coded 403.9x/585.x. But the book did not state that relationship was implied with any other diagnoses.
I want to know if that is the same case with ICD-10. So if a doctor states hypertension and CHF but doesn't state that they have an implied relationship, would those still be coded together to I11.0 or would they be reported separately?
Same think for Diabetes and other diagnoses. Our physicians often state "diabetes, neuropathy, etc etc" but not diabetic neuropathy. We were told during a seminar that if it is not stated as a diabetic neuropathy that they should be coded separately. But with ICD-10 I'm not sure if they should be combined.
For example, the Doctor states Type 2 Diabetes, CKD stg 1, etc etc. Would you use E11.22/N18.1? OR E11.9/N18.1?
I hope my question doesn't seem too confusing.
