Question Consulting doctor/Resident Billing?


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I did ask this question last month but I want to see if there is anyone else that might have any input. I have already looked at the CMS guideline of teaching physicians but I dont see concrete clear evidence for my situation.

I bill Consults for an Orthopedic doc in various hospitals.

Would my doc need to document in clear wording that he is a teaching physician employed by a hospital in order to bill for a resident's consult?

Or in other words, Should My doc need to be designated as a teaching physician at e.g.: ABC Hospital in order to accept documentation from a Resident as a Consult? instead of my doc performing a Consult himself directly to the patient?

My doc just writes seen and agree(or some variation of that) on the Residents Consult.

Also how does the Resident's Scope of Practice/Moonlighting work when my doctor is not employed by the hospital?

The CMS teaching physicians guideline states Residents who operate out of their own scope of practice would be considered billing as a Physician themselves. How accurate is this?

I have docs inquiring why we are not billing their consults and I need updated concrete evidence to give them.

Seeking help from individuals who specialize in these issues.