mass31
Contributor
I'm having trouble interpreting some findings on DEXA scans....
The physician states the indication for the test is a postmenopausal women under 65 with clinical indications for a bone density assessment
And the findings are:
Patient has osteopenia as determined by WHO criteria. In this patient the presents of compression fractures or osteoarthritic changes in the lumbar spine could spuriously increase the BMD of this region: precluding the use of this site as an indicator of osteostatus. Based on the results of the patients bone density assessment the risk of future fracture increases approximately two fold for each 1.0 SD decrease in T-score. Repeat two years unless clinically indicated.
So my confusion is in the findings...is that saying she has a compression fracture of the lumbar spine? or that she is just at risk of compression fracture because of the osteopenia?
The physician states the indication for the test is a postmenopausal women under 65 with clinical indications for a bone density assessment
And the findings are:
Patient has osteopenia as determined by WHO criteria. In this patient the presents of compression fractures or osteoarthritic changes in the lumbar spine could spuriously increase the BMD of this region: precluding the use of this site as an indicator of osteostatus. Based on the results of the patients bone density assessment the risk of future fracture increases approximately two fold for each 1.0 SD decrease in T-score. Repeat two years unless clinically indicated.
So my confusion is in the findings...is that saying she has a compression fracture of the lumbar spine? or that she is just at risk of compression fracture because of the osteopenia?
If what you say is true, you would only code the osteopenia. The compression fracture is a risk with osteopenia. Unless stated that there is a compression fracture of the spine, you would not code it. Hope this helps.