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My orthopedics surgeron saw a patient in the ER for cellulitis. The patient remained "ER" status only, and was not admitted. He was new. Would I bill 99201-05, or could I bill 99281-5 as the patient remained in the ER?
On thing I neglected to mention, and it will probablt not change, but do you beleive this to be the case even though the ER doc first saw the patient, and then requested ortho? I apologize, I should have disclosed that.