Wiki Fracture management - coding 2 ankle fractures

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Patient presents for definitive fracture care. He has a Salter II distal tibia fracture that is anatomically aligned. There is some displacement of the distal fibular shaft fracture, but the mortise is reduced and not widened. In terms of fracture management coding, what is appropriate? Should two separate fracture care codes be charged; one for the distal tibia AND one for the distal shaft of the fibula? OR is the bimalleolar CPT 27808 suitable for both? Any feedback is very much appreciated.
 
Salter II is a type of fracture, it doesn't tell you that the medial malleolus is fractured..did your provider give you any more information than that? Distal tibial fracture of the medial malleolus, shaft, pilon, plafond? There are many options for a distal tib fracture that are not necessarily malleolar. I would say based on your post that you do not have enough information to accurately code this scenario.

:)

Kara
 
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