Medicare pap high risk definintion

tkeeton7885

Networker
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Could someone please explain to me why 'fewer than 3 negative pap smears within the previous 7 years' would be defined as high-risk for Medicare? It appears a history of positive abnormal pap smears would be high risk instead!
Thanks for your help!
 

cedwards

Guru
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Hamden
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My intrepertation of this code is when a patient does not come in for routine annuals and therefore there would not be any pap smears therefore no 3 negative ones.

For example:

Jane Doe brings in her 60 year old mother for her annual because she has not been seen in 10 years. She can have a pap smear every year for the next three years even if they are all negative and Medicare will pay if you use that V code.
 
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