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Expert
Hello,
I have a question..if a patient is seen on an initial office visit for a condition that was active a few weeks prior and does no longer have it at the time of the visit, can the physician bill for the diagnosis?
Example:
Patient had colitis in the hospital weeks prior to being seen in our office. The physician did not see this patient in the hospital, nor any of our other physicians. So my question is can he bill for this even though the patient no longer has this condition, this contributed to the acute kidney injury that the patient had? By the way my physicians are Nephrologists, so we deal with the kidneys.
Thank you!
I have a question..if a patient is seen on an initial office visit for a condition that was active a few weeks prior and does no longer have it at the time of the visit, can the physician bill for the diagnosis?
Example:
Patient had colitis in the hospital weeks prior to being seen in our office. The physician did not see this patient in the hospital, nor any of our other physicians. So my question is can he bill for this even though the patient no longer has this condition, this contributed to the acute kidney injury that the patient had? By the way my physicians are Nephrologists, so we deal with the kidneys.
Thank you!