Patient came in for a rash on her hand (otherwise a healthy female with no co-morbidities), during the same encounter she requested her doctor to prescribe her birth control pills. Since she was a new patient, the doctor ordered blood and performed a pap smear. Patient was precribed ointment to treat dermatitis and birth control pills. The office insists that the principal diagnosis should be Z01.49 vs L308. I disagree. Would love to hear your thoughts.