MnTwins29
True Blue
One of our primary care providers saw a patient 8 days post-delivery who had pre-eclampsia and still had high BP. She is improving and the physician provided these ICD-9 codes:
642.44
401.9
642.94
Now, I have been out of the loop for OB/GYN coding for a long time, but this just doesn't sound right. I have these questions:
1) Is the 5th digit of "4" correct? She is not following up with the OB/GYN who delivered, so I am thinking that this should be "0", not 4 as a postpartum condition. Also considering it is documented that this was diagnosed during the pregnancy, I am not sure about 4.
2) Is the 401.9 redundant, or is it required as an additional condition?
3) 642.94 should be deleted, correct?
Thank you in advance!
642.44
401.9
642.94
Now, I have been out of the loop for OB/GYN coding for a long time, but this just doesn't sound right. I have these questions:
1) Is the 5th digit of "4" correct? She is not following up with the OB/GYN who delivered, so I am thinking that this should be "0", not 4 as a postpartum condition. Also considering it is documented that this was diagnosed during the pregnancy, I am not sure about 4.
2) Is the 401.9 redundant, or is it required as an additional condition?
3) 642.94 should be deleted, correct?
Thank you in advance!