mmiele1979
Contributor
I have a colleague asking me if he can purposely just not bill for a lab done in house so he can add a point to the MDM. To me, this is not correct coding but on my own I cannot find the documentation to support my claim. Can someone else confirm or deny? Where can I find this in writing? This is someone not from my office but my physicians are paying attention to the conversation and I need to have a reference.