Reformatted/reconstructed exam

pjohns01

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if an exam is reformatted/reconstructed from an exam that was peformed with contrast, would the reformatted/reconstructed exam be coded with contrast also? Then if an exam is reformatted/reconstructed from an exam that was performed without contrast, would the reformatted/reconstructed exam be coded without contrast also? Or, are all reformatted/reconstructed exams coded as without contrast irregardless?:confused:
 

pjohns01

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no, I am talking about when the radiologist does a CT adomen and pelvis with conrast and then reconstructs/reformats a CT lumbar spine. Would the lumbar spine be with or without contrast?
 

jgf-CPC

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If done in sequence with the CT Abd then you could look at it as the patient does have the contrast in them from the previous exam so you would see it as CT Lumbar with contrast but you would not charge for the contrast twice the same day. Just looking at it from another point of view.
 

beachbabi

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Of course if your protocol is oral contrast given for the CT Abdomen, that will not relate to the Lspine.

If we do a CT pelvis with contrast then add another modality (CT Chest) to the series, then we have to up our ml on contrast.

Example: CT Pelvis 74193, contrast Q9967 100ml
CT Chest 72160, contrast Q9967 50ml
3D recon 76377

I think it all relates to how your radiologist interprets the scan and what the your protocol is. Most all radiologist do things differently. Like I said above, our protocol is the patient gets an oral contrast for the abdomen and IV contrast for the pelvis.
 

jgf-CPC

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So you are saying that you charge for 2 contrasts in one day? One being 50 and the other 100 to the same carrier? And you are getting paid for both?
 
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