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I need some help. Provider excised a lesion. Pre dx: keratoacanthoma left arm. Per OP report, pt had WLE left arm malignant lesion defect more less 4 x 8 cm closed primary. He listed procedure as "Excision, malignant lesion including margins, trunk, arms or legs, excised diameter over 4.0 with local mac. The left arm was prepped and drapped. A horizontal ellipse more less 8 x 4 cm was marked around the ulcerative, elevated lesion of the dorsal left proximal forearm. The planned ellipse was injected with 10 cc of 1% lidocaine with 1:100, 000 adrenaline. THe planned ellipse was made with #15 blade down to subcutaneous fat and the ellipse and lesion were excised and sent for permanent fxiation. The wound edges were undermined about 4 cm and the ellipse was closed wtih 3-0 Vicryl deep and 5-0 nylon superficially. The patient tolerated the procedure well. Needle and sponge count were correct x2. The pathology reports as follows: Sections demonstrate a spindle cell proliferation, which appears densely cellular. The spindle cell proliferation orginates from the reticular dermis. The tumor consists of foamy histiocytes. Mitotoic figures are scant. Spindle cells appear "trapped" ind ermal collagen at the edge of the lesion, as is commonly seen in benign fibrous histiocytomas. Should I use a benign diagnosis code D49.89 with CPT 11406? Thank you for your help.